Let p be an odd prime. Show that the congruence x4≡−1 (mod p) has a solution if and only if p is of the form 8k+1.
Here is what I did
Suppose that x4≡−1 (mod p) and let y=indrx. Then −x is aolso a solution and indr(−x) ≡indr(−1)+indr(x) ≡(p−1)/2+y(modp−1) Without loss of generality, we may take $0
\equiv ind_r(p-1)/2(mod p-1) \text{ }\
.So4y = (p-1)/2+m(p−1)$forsome$m$.But$4y<2(p−1)$,so$4y=(p−1)/2$andso$p=8y+1$or$4y=3(p−1)/2$.Inthiscase,3mustdivide$y$,sowehave$p=8(y/3)+1$.Ineithercase,$p$isoftheform.Conversely,suppose$p=8k+1$andlet$r$beaprimitiverootof$p$.Take$x$$=$$rk$.Then$x4\equiv r^{4k} \text{ }\
\equiv r^{(p-1)/2} \text{ }\
\equiv -1 (mod p) \text{ }\
.Thisx$ is a solution.
We just learned some of this topic. My TA said do not worry about it yet. Is this correct?
Is there another way to do this? If so, please show me.
Answer
There is a simpler way:
If x^4\equiv-1\pmod p, x^8=(x^4)^2\equiv(-1)^2\pmod p\equiv1
So,ord_px must divide 8
But it can not divide 4 as x^4\equiv-1\pmod p\implies ord_px=8
Using this, 8 divides \phi(p)=p-1
Conversely seems to be fine in your approach
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