This is a homework question from a problem set in an undergraduate-level real analysis course (coming from merely an intro to analysis course) about Lp spaces.
Show that {sin(nx)}∞n=1 converges in the L1 norm on [0,2π]
I showed that, for fn(x)=sin(nx), the sequence of norms ‖fn‖ converges, but apparently I was supposed to show that ‖f−fn‖→0, which I'm not really sure how to do. I'm probably missing something relatively simple, but I would appreciate the help.
No comments:
Post a Comment