One of my teachers argued today that 0^0 = 1. However, WolframAlpha, intuition(?) and various other sources say otherwise... 0^0 doesn't really "mean" anything..
can anyone clear this up with some rigorous explanation?
Answer
Short answer: It depends on your convention and how you define exponents.
Long answer: There are a number of ways of defining exponents. Usually these definitions coincide, but this is not so for 00: some definitions yield 00=1 and some don't apply when both numbers are zero (leaving 00 undefined).
For example, given nonnegative whole numbers m and n, we can define mn to be the number of functions A→B, where A is a set of size n and B is a set of size m. This definition gives 00=1 because the only set of size 0 is the empty set ∅, and the only function ∅→∅ is the empty function.
However, an analyst might not want 00 to be defined. Why? Becuase look at the limits of the following functions:
limx→0+0x=0,limx→0x0=1,limx→0+(e−1/t2)−t=∞
All three limits look like 00. So when this is desired, you might want to leave 00 undefined, so that it's a lack of definition rather than a discontinuity.
Typically this is resolved by:
- If you're in a discrete setting, e.g. considering sets, graphs, integers, and so on, then you should take 00=1.
- If you're in a continuous setting, e.g. considering functions on the real line or complex plane, then you should take 00 to be undefined.
Sometimes these situations overlap. For example, usually when you define functions by infinite series
f(x)=∞∑n=0anxn
problems occur when you want to know the value of f(0). It is normal in these cases to take 00=1, so that f(0)=a0; the reason being that we're considering what happens as x→0, and this corresponds with limx→0x0=1.
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