I have this exercise:
Determine if the following improper integrals exist:
- ∫∞01√1+x3dx
- ∫∞0x1+x32dx
- ∫∞01x√1+xdx
I'm lost and I don't know how should I do it. I know that
∫∞0f(x)dx=limn→∞∫n0f(x)dx
And so, I try to calculate the integrals from zero to n, but I wasn't able to obtain an expression for them. Then I compute the integrals using Mathematica and those integrals seems to be really hard to compute manually, at least the first one, because the second and third integrals diverge.
I understand that the exercise only asks for a criteria for existance and that I don't need to compute an expression for the integrals, just give an argument of why do I say the integral exists or not, but I'm really stuck.
Is there a general result for improper integral's existence that I'm not using?
Answer
Result:
If \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} x^p f(x)=A < \infty, then \int_a^\infty f(x) \;dx \;\text{is} \begin{cases} < \infty & \text{if}\;p>1\\\\\text{diverges}& \text{otherwise}\;\end{cases}
For the first bullet, consider \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}x^{3/2}f(x)=\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}x^{3/2}\frac{1}{x^{3/2}(1+1/x^3)^{1/2}}=\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty}\frac{1}{(1+1/x^3)^{1/2}}=1< \infty so this improper integral exist!
For the second bullet, consider \lim x^{1/2}f(x) and for the third case, consider \lim xf(x)
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