Hi everyone I wonder to myself if the next proof is correct. I would appreciate any suggestion.
Proposition: There is not a sequence of natural numbers which is infinite descent.
Proof: Suppose for contradiction that there exists a sequence of natural numbers which is infinite descent. Let (an) be such sequence, i.e., an>an+1 for all natural numbers n.
We claim that if the sequence exists, then an≥k for all k,n∈N.
We induct on k. Clearly the base case holds, since each an is a natural number and then an≥0 for all n. Now suppose inductively that the claim holds for k≥0, i.e., an≥k for all n∈N; we wish to show that also holds for k+1 and thus close the induction. Furthermore, we get a contradiction since an≥k for all k,n∈N, implies that the natural numbers are bounded.
an>an+1 since (an) is an infinite descent. By the inductive hypothesis we know that an+1≥k, so we have an>k and then an≥k+1.
To conclude we have to show that the claim holds for every n. Suppose there is some n0 such that $a_{n_0}
Thanks :)
Answer
I would argue a different way.
By assumption,
for all n,
an>an+1,
or
an≥an+1+1.
Therefore,
since
an+1≥an+2+1,
an≥an+2+2.
Proceeding by induction,
for any k,
an≥an+k+k.
But,
set k=an+1.
We get
an≥an+an+1+an+1>an.
This is the desired contradiction.
This can be stated in this form:
We can only go down as
far as we are up.
Note:
This sort of reminds me
of some of the
fixed point theorems
in recursive function theory.
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