Tuesday, 26 May 2015

modular arithmetic - When is (p2)!equiv1(bmodp)

I want to show when the following is true for p a prime number. (p - 2)! \equiv 1 \pmod p. Could someone help me prove this? It worked for p = 2, p = 3, p = 5, so I believe it may work for all primes but I need to prove it. I don't know how to apply Wilson's or Fermat's theorem to this. I tried to rewrite it as (p - 1 - 1)! \equiv 1 \pmod p but I still couldn't see how to apply Wilson's theorem to it. Could someone help me?

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real analysis - How to find lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}

How to find \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h} without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...