I want to show that sin(x)<x for all x>0, using the mean value theorem.
Since the sine is bounded above by 1, it's obviously true for x>1. Consider x∈]0,1]. Let f(x)=sin(x). Choose a=0 and x>0, then there is, according to the mean value theorem, an x0 between a and x with
f′(x0)=f(x)−f(a)x−a⇔(sin(x))′(x0)=sin(x)−sin(a)x⇔cos(x0)=sin(x)x
Since 1≥x0>0⇒cos(x0)<1,
⇒1>cos(x0)=sin(x)x⇒x>sin(x)
Is my proof correct?
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