Friday, 26 May 2017

real analysis - Showing sin(x)0 using the mean value theorem

I want to show that sin(x)<x for all x>0, using the mean value theorem.



Since the sine is bounded above by 1, it's obviously true for x>1. Consider x]0,1]. Let f(x)=sin(x). Choose a=0 and x>0, then there is, according to the mean value theorem, an x0 between a and x with



f(x0)=f(x)f(a)xa(sin(x))(x0)=sin(x)sin(a)xcos(x0)=sin(x)x




Since 1x0>0cos(x0)<1,



1>cos(x0)=sin(x)xx>sin(x)



Is my proof correct?

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