It is well known the following function
f(x)=11x+12x+13x+14x+⋯
only converges if x>1.
If we now consider f(z) where z is complex, why can we say that the function converges for Re(z)>1?
What's logic that allows us to simply apply convergence rules to the real part of a complex function's domain?
(I am not a trained mathematician so I'd appreciate answers which minimise assumptions about terminology.)
Answer
As indicated by Martin R in the comment, the reason is that absolute convergence of complex series implies convergence and in this case we have that for z=x+iy
|1nz|=1|nz|=1|nx|
indeed
|nz|=|nx||niy|=|nx||eiylogn|=|nx|
thus the series conveges for Re(z)=x>1.
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