Monday, 3 September 2018

functional equations - f(z1z2)=f(z1)f(z2) for z1,z2inmathbbC then f(z)=zk for some k



Same as my previous question except domain is complex. I tried assuming that the function was analytic, so for z1=z2=z , f(z2)=f(z)2 n=0anz2n=(n=0anzn)2 and try to solve it. Ideally, I should have something like an=0 for all but one k. and that should prove it.




This question, with z1=z2 was asked today but I have not been able to understand their answers.


Answer



This question is very similar to the other.



Notice that the constant zero function is a solution. For the remainder of this answer, I assume that f is not identically 0.



First, let z1=0. Then f(0)=f(0)f(z2) for all z2. Lets split into cases since either f(0)=0 or f(0)0.



Case 1: Suppose f(0)0. Then in the equation f(0)=f(0)f(z2) we can divide through by f(0) and conclude that f(z2)=1 for all z2, so f must be the constant function 1.




Case 2: Suppose f(0)=0. As f is analytic, we may write f(z)=zkg(z) for some analytic g where g(0)0. This function g must satisfy the same functional equation as f (why?). Hence by case 1, it follows that g=1, and we conclude f(z)=zk.



Hope that helps,


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