Suppose f:(0,∞)→R is differentiable and f′(x)>x.
Prove that f isn't uniformly continuous in (0,∞).
Hint, prove first that for all y>x>0 we have f(y)−f(x)≥(y−x)x.
From the first line I understand the function is always increasing and never has an extremum.
The hint looks like it is directly from Lagrange's MVT, but the definition doesn't really work with R and ∞, and using the definition of a derivative with lim I don't see how to loose the limit.
The next step would probably be to show the function isn't Lipschitz, since a uniformly continuous function pass Lipschitz definition: f(y)-f(x)\le M(y-x) for some M\ge 0 but here it will never hold since for all x we have f(y)-f(x)\ge x(y-x)
Answer
Proof of the hint
Let y>x>0.
By the mean value theorem, there is some \beta\in (x,y) such that \displaystyle \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}=f'(\beta)
By assumption, f'(\beta)>\beta>x
Hence \displaystyle \frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}>x
Proof of the claim
Suppose that for \epsilon=1, there is some \delta such that |x-y|\leq \delta\implies |f(x)-f(y)|\leq 1
Choose N an integer such that n\geq N \implies \frac{1}n\leq \delta
For n\geq N, consider x_n=n^2 and y_n=n^2+\frac1n
By the previous lemma, and since |x_n-y_n|\leq \delta, we have |y_n-x_n|x_n\leq 1
That is n\leq 1
Contradiction.
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