I have the following statement -
If ∑∞1a2n converge then ∑∞1a3n converge.
Well i know this statement is true , but if can someone explain why
limn→∞(a2n)=0 implies that limn→∞(an)=0
(a fact that help to prove this statement) , Thanks!
How to find limh→0sin(ha)h without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
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