I have the following statement -
If $\sum_{1}^{\infty} a_{n}^2$ converge then $\sum_{1}^{\infty} a_{n}^3$ converge.
Well i know this statement is true , but if can someone explain why
$\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_{n}^2) = 0$ implies that $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}(a_{n}) = 0$
(a fact that help to prove this statement) , Thanks!
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