Thursday, 28 February 2019

inequality - For any natural number n, Prove that prodnr=1bigg(r+frac1nbigg)leq2(n!)




For any natural number n, Prove that nr=1(r+1n)2(n!)




Trial Solution: Using 1n1,2,3,n



nr=1(1+2n)2462n




nr=1(1+2n)2nn!



Could some help me how to prove my original inequality, Thanks


Answer



We can verify directly for n=1,2. Suppose n3. Then
nr=1log(1+1rn)nr=11rn1+1/2+(n2)/3n1118<log2.
Now exponentiate and multiply by n!.


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