https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/704048/theory-number-problems
After I saw that post i wanted to solve the first one which is
a∣b2,b2∣a3,a3∣b4,b4∣a5⋯ Prove that a=b
Now i started by proving that a and b have same prime divisors,proving that is trivial,after doing so I checked do those factors have to have the same power.I tried with
a=p2,b=p3
I noticed it exactly goes for 3 terms,or that a3∣b4
doing a=pn−1,b=pnpn−1∣p2np2n∣p3n−3p3n−3∣p4np4n∣p5n−5⋯pn(n−1)∣pn(n−1)pn(n−1)∣pn(n+1)pn(n+1)∤p(n−1)(n+1)
Now yeah I guess that would be a proof,but wouldn't setting n=n+1 infinitely many times make every term dividable?
Answer
Hint b(b/a),b(b/a)3,b(b/a)5… are all integers, i.e. b is a common denominator for unbounded powers of b/a, hence b/a, is an integer (prove this!), therefore a∣b. Similarly b∣a.
Further hint: let r=ba=cd, (c,d)=1. Then brk=n∈Z⇒bck=ndk so dk∣bck⇒dk∣b by Euclid's Lemma and (c,d)=1. dk∣b for unbounded k ⇒d=±1, so r=cd=±c∈Z.
Remark The above property, that unbounded powers of proper fractions cannot have a common denominator (such as b above), is a special property of Z that needn't be true in general domains. When it holds true, a domain is called completely integrally closed.
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