Wednesday, 30 October 2013

probability - Why is Wiener measure a Gaussian measure?

This is silly and trivial so let me be really clear with my definitions and where exactly I got stuck.




The space (C[0,T],,σ(),γ) is called classical Wiener space where γ is Wiener measure.




I define Wiener measure as follows:





Wiener measure is the Kolmogorov extension of the finite dimensional distributions of the Wiener process.




And Gaussian measure on Banach space:




Let B be a Banach space with dual B. A Borel measure γ is called Gaussian iff for all B the pushforward measure γ is a Gaussian measure on R where γ(A)=γ(1(A)) is the pushforward measure.




So I know the dual space of C[0,T] is RCA([0,T]) (by Riesz-Markov-Kakutani theorem) the space of all complex signed Radon measures with finite total variation. So we have to check that μ(γ) is a Gaussian measure on R for all μRCA([0,T]).




If μ is a finite linear combination of δs we are fine as δ1t(A) are all the paths that pass through the set A at time t[0,T]. Then γ of this is Gaussian by definition. Linearity is not too bad after this.



Then we have to extend to all measures and I am not sure how to do this. I know δs should be dense in RCA([0,T]) and Wiener measure is the Kolmogorov extension of the finite dimensions but I'm not sure exactly what the argument should be.

No comments:

Post a Comment

real analysis - How to find limhrightarrow0fracsin(ha)h

How to find limh0sin(ha)h without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...