Tuesday, 8 July 2014

calculus - Zero function implies zero polynomial.

I'm trying to help someone with a problem in Apostol's book (Chapter 1 BTW, so before basically any calculus concepts are covered) at the moment and I'm stumped on a question.




I'm trying to prove that if p is a polynomial of degree n, that is where
p(x)=a0+a1x++anxn
for some real numbers a0,,an, and if p(x)=0 for all xR, then ak=0 for all k.



Looking through the site, I find this question, but the solution given uses the derivative. But this before the definition of the derivative in Apostol's book, so I can't use that to prove this. I also know that we can use linear algebra to solve this, but pretend I don't understand the concept of linear independence either as Apostol's book doesn't presuppose that. Then what can we do to prove this? It feels like there should be a proof by induction possible, but I'm not seeing how to do the induction step.



My Attempt: Proving that a0=0 is trivial by evaluating p(0). But then I'm left with
p(x)=x(a1++anxn1)
Here I see that for all x0, a1+anxn1=0. But because of that x0 part, that means I can't use the same trick to show that a1=0.




Any ideas?

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