What is the easiest and correct way of finding a counter-example of this kind of questions:
Do these relation holds for every sets A,B,C,D?
1) (A∖C)×(B∖D))=(A×B)∖(C×D)
2) (C×D)∖(A×(D∖B))⊂(A×D)∪(C×(D∖B))
Thanks in advance.
Answer
Here's my answer to the actual question you asked, not the specific set theory questions.
For me the "easiest and correct way" to decide whether such a statement is true is to play with small examples. That often leads either to a counterexample (if the assertion is false) or to an idea of how to prove it (if it's true).
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