Given prime p,0<m<p and ed≡1(modp−1), prove med≡m(modp).
I get that this is hinting at a proof very similar to that of RSA, and that I have to consider when gcd(m,p)=1 and when it doesn't. I also know that I need to use Euler's theorem and CRT. I just can't get past the p−1 passing itself into the mod from Euler's theorem. How should this proof look?
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