Let A,B,C be sets such that C⊆B. Let f:A→B be a function. Prove that f−1(B∖C)=A∖f−1(C).
I really need help with this proof problem. I'm not sure where to begin or what strategy to consider using.
How to find lim without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
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