I have to find
lim
without series expansion nor l'Hopital's rule, and am utterly and completely lost.
I ended up putting x = 2y and getting to
\lim_{y\to 0}\frac{1-\cos y-2\sin^2y\cos y}{\cos y\left(1-2\sin^2y\right)}\;,
which gives me 0/1 = 0, but the back of the book says that the answer is 1/2.
How would this be solved without the use of series expansions nor l'Hopital's rule?
Answer
Start with \tan x=\frac{\sin x}{\cos x}. With a little simplification our expression becomes
\frac{\sin x-\sin x\cos x}{\cos x\sin^3 x}.
Cancel a \sin x. We end up with
\frac{1-\cos x}{\cos x\sin^2 x}.
Now for the key trick: multiply top and bottom by 1+\cos x. The top becomes 1-\cos^2 x. This is \sin^2 x and cancels the \sin^2 x at the bottom. We end up with
\frac{1}{\cos x(1+\cos x)}.
Now finding the limit is straightforward, since \cos x\to 1 as x\to 0.
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