I realised I needed to show more information, which I now did:
$$f: X \rightarrow X \,\,\,\rm{and}\,\,\,\, A \subseteq X$$
Proof that: $$f(f^{-1}(A)) \subseteq A$$
This is my proof:
By defintion:
$$f^{-1}(A)=\{x \in X\mid f(x) \in A\}$$
and
$$f(A)=\{f(x) \mid x \in A\} = \{y \in X \mid \exists x \in A: y=f(x)\} \subseteq X$$
Therefore we can end the proof by a final definition:\
$$f(f^{-1}(A))=\{y \in A: \exists x \in f^{-1}(A):y=f(x)\} \subseteq A$$
Is this a legit "proof"? And is it even a proof, when i only use definitions?
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