Let t and s be real numbers with $t. Suppose that as n→∞, a2n→t and a2n−1→s.
True or False: It must be that lim inf and \limsup a_{n} = s and (a_n) has no other limit points.
Prove the statement or give a counterexample.
I think true, based on the following example, which I adapted from a wikipedia image (where s=1, t=-1 and a_{2n-1} is the pink sequence and a_{2n} is the light blue sequence):
Hence, all of what the statement said is true... but i don't know how to prove it.
Answer
I will use the following definition of \limsup and \liminf:
Let E be the set of subsequential limits of (a_n). Then \limsup_{n \to \infty} a_n := \sup E and \liminf_{n \to \infty} a_n := \inf E.
It suffices to show that in the setting of your question, E = \{t, s\}.
Clearly t,s \in E. Now suppose (a_{n_k}) is a subsequence of (a_n). The sequence of indices n_k must either contain infinitely many even numbers or infinitely many odd numbers (or both).
Edit: This implies that (a_{n_k}) contains a further subsequence that either converges to s or to t. Thus if (a_{n_k}) converges, it must be to either s or t. (But it might not converge.)
So E = \{t,s\}.
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