Tuesday 26 April 2016

calculus - What's wrong with this argument? (Limits)

In order to compute $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to \infty} \sqrt{9x^2 + x} - 3x$ we can multiply by the conjugate and eventually arrive at a limit value $1/6$.



But what about the line of reasoning below, what is wrong with the argument and why? I can't think of a simple explanation, I had one involving the limit definition but I believe there should be a less complicated one.



Here's the argument:
Clearly for large $x$ we can say $\sqrt{9x^2 + x} \approx \sqrt{9x^2} = 3x$. Hence $$ \lim_{x \to \infty} \sqrt{9x^2 + x} - 3x = \lim_{x \to \infty} 3x - 3x = 0 \ . $$ So the limit ought to be zero, easy!



What goes wrong and why?

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