calculus - Interchanging Inverse Laplace Transform

I have a function $f(|\boldsymbol{k}|,s,\theta)$ for which I am interested in its inverse Laplace transform. I am also interested in the function's mean value for constant $|\boldsymbol{k}|$, but technically I need to inverse Laplace transform first. I was wondering about the interchangeability of the inverse transform and the mean; that is, does:

\begin{equation}
\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \mathcal{L}^{-1}\left\{f(|\boldsymbol{k}|,s,\theta)\right\}\mathrm{d}\theta=\mathcal{L}^{-1}\left\{\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} f(|\boldsymbol{k}|,s,\theta)\mathrm{d}\theta\right\}
\end{equation}
The inverse Laplace transform is w.r.t. $s$.

I could think of a few reasons why it may not hold; for example, would it hold if doing the mean integration first affects the poles of $s$ (if that could happen)?

Please forgive my lack of knowledge in math, I do not know much measure theory and am not sure of the formality of interchanging these two operators. Any help is greatly appreciated!

EDIT: The actual function looks like:

\begin{equation}
f(|\boldsymbol{k}|,s,\theta)=\frac{\lambda_2 \left(D |\boldsymbol{k}|^2+2 \lambda_1+s\right)+\lambda_1 (i \boldsymbol{k}\cdot \boldsymbol{v}+\lambda_1+s)+\lambda_2^2}{(\lambda_1+\lambda_2) \left(\left(D |\boldsymbol{k}|^2+s\right) (i \boldsymbol{k}\cdot\boldsymbol{v}+\lambda_1+s)+\lambda_2 (s+i\boldsymbol{k}\cdot\boldsymbol{v} )\right)}
\end{equation}
All variables are real and positive except for $s$, of course. $\theta$ is the angle between $\boldsymbol{v}$ and $\boldsymbol{k}$. Carrying out the mean integration first gives:
\begin{equation}

f(|\boldsymbol{k}|,s)=\frac{\lambda_1}{(\lambda_1+\lambda_2) \left(D |\boldsymbol{k}|^2+\lambda_2+s\right)}
\end{equation}
which makes it easy to then find the inverse Laplace transform. Not sure if this is at all helpful.