Prove that for every natural number n, (n2+n)(n2+2) can be divided by 6.
I've noticed that (n2+n)=n(n+1) so these are two successive numbers hence one of them can be divided by two.
I suppose that I should prove that (n2+n)(n2+2) can be divided by 3 but I don't know how to do that.
Answer
Either n is divisible by 3, or n2+2=(n+1)(n−1)+3 is.
No comments:
Post a Comment