I was looking at a solution of a probability exercise and the author of the solution uses the formula $$P(Y \le X)=\int_0^{\infty} P(Y \le X | X=x)f_X(x)dx$$ where $X$, $Y$ are the random variables $f_X$ is the density function of the random variable $X$. From where does this result come from?
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real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$
How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
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How can one proof the equality $$\sum\limits_{v=0}^k \frac{k^v}{v!}=\sum\limits_{v=0}^k \frac{v^v (k-v)^{k-v}}{v!(k-v)!}$$ for $k\in\mathbb{...
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How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
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If you think about the limit definition of the derivative, $dy$ represents $$\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\dfrac {f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$$, and $dx...
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