Theorem $3.1.3$
When $a$ and $b$ are nonnegative integers, the relationship $a\equiv b\text{(mod }m)$ is equivalent to $\underline{\text{$a$ and $b$ leaving equal remainders upon division by $m$}}$
(from UTM "A Readable Introduction to Real Mathmatics" Chapter 3)
"is equivalent to $a$ and $b$ leaving equal remainders upon division by $m$"
I'm trying to understand what this means, is it saying:
Let $a,b\ge0$
$a\equiv b\mod m\leftrightarrow (a\equiv s\mod m\wedge b\equiv s\mod m)$, where $s$ is the same remainder
Thanks for your help.
Answer
It means what I think you think it means.
For any $a, b \ge 0$ there are unique integers $j,k,s,t$ so that $a = jm + s; 0\le s < m$ and $b=km + t; 0 \le t < m$. $t$ and $s$ are called the remainders of $a$ and $b$ respectively.
So that statement is saying:
$a \equiv b \pmod m \iff s =t$.
It's easy to verify.
Pf: If $a \equiv b \pmod m$ then $m|a-b = (jm + s)-(km+t) = (j-k)m + (s-t)$ so $m|s-t$ but $0\le t< m; 0\le s< m$ so $-m < t-s < m$ so if $m|s-t$ that means $s-t = 0$ and $t=s$.
If $t=s$ then $a-b = (jm+s)-(km+t)= (j-k)m + (s-t) = (j-k)m$. So $m|a-b$ and $a\equiv b\pmod m$
.....
This means you can define $a\equiv b \pmod m$ in two ways.
You can define it as $a\equiv b\pmod m$ if $m|a-b$.
Or
You can define it as $a\equiv b\pmod m$ if $a$ and $b$ have the same remainder when divided by $m$
You can also define it as $a \equiv b\pmod m$ if there is an integer $k$ so that $a = km + b$.
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