Thursday 18 July 2013

calculus - Proving $frac2pi x le sin x le x$ for $xin [0,frac {pi} 2]$




Prove $\frac2\pi x \le \sin x \le x$ for $x\in [0,\frac {\pi} 2]$.




I tried to do this in two ways, I'm not sure about CMVT and I have a problem with the other way.







Using Cauchy's MVT:



RHS:
$\sin x \le x \implies \frac {\sin x}{x}\le 1$
So define:
$f(x)=\sin x, \ g(x)=x$ then from CMVT:
$\dfrac {f(\frac {\pi} 2)}{g(\frac {\pi} 2)}=\dfrac {f'(c)} {g'(c)}=\cos c$
and from the fact that $c$ is between $0$ and $\pi/2 \implies \cos c \le 1$.




LHS: In the same manner but here I run into some trouble:
$\frac2\pi x \le \sin x\implies \frac {2x}{\pi\sin x}\le 1$
So:
$\dfrac {f(\frac {\pi} 2)}{g(\frac {\pi} 2)}=\dfrac {f'(c)} {g'(c)}\implies\frac {1}{\sin {\frac {\pi}{2}}}=\frac {2}{\pi \cos c}$
Here actually
$\frac {1}{\sin {\frac {\pi}{2}}}=1$ so it's also $\le 1$



Is it correct to use CMVT like this ?







The other way:



We want to show: $f(x)=\sin x - x < 0$ and $g(x)=\frac {2x}{\pi}-sinx <0 $ by deriving both it's easy to show that the inequality stands for $f$ but for $g$ it isn't so obvious that $g'(x)=\frac {2}{\pi}-\cos x$ is negative. In fact for $x=\frac {\pi} 2$ it's positive. Please help figure this out.






This is the same The sine inequality $\frac2\pi x \le \sin x \le x$ for $0 but all the answers there are partial or hints and I want to avoid convexity.




Note: I can't use integrals.


Answer



To show that $\sin x\le x$ you can apply the Cauchy mean value theorem. (Note that you want to show the inequality for any $x\in\left[0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right].$ )Consider, as you have done, $f(x)=\sin x$ and $g(x)=x.$ Apply the theorem in the interval $[0,x]$ and you will get the inequality, as a consequence of $\cos c\le 1.$ Indeed, there exists $c\in(0,x)$ such that $$\sin x=g'(c)(f(x)-f(0))=f'(c)(g(x)-g(0))=(\cos c)\cdot x\le x.$$



To show the other inequality consider $f(x)=\sin x-\frac{2}{\pi}x.$ We have that $f(0)=f(\pi/2)=0.$ Since $f$ is continuous and $[0,\pi/2]$ is compact it attains a global minimum. If the minimum is not achieved at the extrema of the interval then it belongs to the open interval $(0,\pi/2).$ Let $c$ be the point where $f$ achieves its global minimum. Then $f''(c)\ge 0,$ but $f''(c)=-\sin c<0$ for any $c\in(0,\pi/2).$ So the minimum value is $f(0)=f(\pi/2)=0,$ from where $0\le f(x)=\sin x-\frac{2}{\pi}x,$ which shows the inequality.


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