why is n∑k=1km a polynomial with degree m+1 in n?
I know this is well-known. But how to prove it rigorously? Even mathematical induction does not seem so straight-forward.
Thanks.
Answer
Let V be the space of all polynomials f:N≥0→F (where F is a field of characteristic zero). Define the forward difference operator Δf(n)=f(n+1)−f(n). It is not hard to see that the forward difference of a polynomial of degree d is a polynomial of degree d−1, hence defines a linear operator Vd→Vd−1 where Vd is the space of polynomials of degree at most d. Note that dimVd=d+1.
We want to think of Δ as a discrete analogue of the derivative, so it is natural to define the corresponding discrete analogue of the integral (∫f)(n)=∑n−1k=0f(k). But of course we need to prove that this actually sends polynomials to polynomials. Since (∫Δf)(n)=f(n)−f(0) (the "fundamental theorem of discrete calculus"), it suffices to show that the forward difference is surjective as a linear operator Vd→Vd−1.
But by the "fundamental theorem," the image of the integral is precisely the subspace of Vd of polynomials such that f(0)=0, so the forward difference and integral define an isomorphism between Vd−1 and this subspace.
More explicitly, you can observe that Δ is upper triangular in the standard basis, work by induction, or use the Newton basis 1, n, {n \choose 2}, {n \choose 3}, ... for the space of polynomials. In this basis we have \Delta {n \choose k} = {n \choose k-1}, and now the result is really obvious.
The method of finite differences provides a fairly clean way to derive a formula for \sum n^m for fixed m. In fact, for any polynomial f(n) we have the "discrete Taylor formula"
f(n) = \sum_{k \ge 0} \Delta^k f(0) {n \choose k}
and it's easy to compute the numbers \Delta^k f(0) using a finite difference table and then to replace {n \choose k} by {n \choose k+1}. I wrote a blog post that explains this, but it's getting harder to find; I also explained it in my notes on generating functions.
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