Sunday 21 July 2013

real analysis - limit of $left( 1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n}$

limit of $$\left( 1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n}$$



is said to be $\frac{1}{e}$ but how do we actually prove it?




I'm trying to use squeeze theorem



$$\frac{1}{e}=\lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\left(1-\frac{1}{n+1}\right)^{n}>\lim\limits_{n\to \infty}\left( 1-\frac{1}{n} \right)^{n} > ??$$

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