I am trying to prove this interesting integralI:=∫π/40dxsin2x(tanax+cotax)=π8a,Re(a)≠0.
This result is breath taking but I am more stumped than usual. It truly is magnificent. I am not sure how to approach this,
note sin2x=2sinxcosx. I am not sure how to approach this because of the term
(tanax+cotax)
in the denominator. I was trying to use the identity
tan(π2−x)=cotx
since this method solves a similar kind of integral but didn't get anywhere. A bad idea I tried was to try and differentiate with respect to a
dI(a)da=∫π/40∂a(dxsin2x(tanax+cotax))=∫π/40(cotaxlog(cotx)+log(tanx)tanax)sin2x(cotax+tanax)2dx
which seems more complicated when I break it up into two integrals. How can we solve the integral? Thanks.
Answer
Rewrite:
∫π40dxsin2x(tanax+cotax)=∫π40dx2sinxcosx(tanax+1tanax)=12∫π40tanax dxtanxcos2x(1+tan2ax)=12∫π40tana−1x d(tanx)1+tan2ax.
Now, let tanax=tanθ⇒atana−1x d(tanx)=sec2θ dθ. Then
12∫π4x=0tana−1x d(tanx)1+tan2ax=12|a|∫π4θ=0sec2θ dθ1+tan2θ=12|a|∫π4θ=0 dθ=π8|a|.
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