Saturday, 5 July 2014

Analysis Sequences Proof and Tending to ∞

The following is false. Disprove it using a counter example.




Claim: If (an) → ∞ and bn> 0 ∀n ∈ N then (an bn) → ∞.



Counterexample:



My attempt.



My pitiful attempt consisted of assuming bn was a sequence greater than 0. I made an be natural numbers (the sequence 1, 2, 3, 4,...) and bn be the sequence (5, 1/n, 5, 1/n, 5, 1/n,...). Multiplied together it left (5, 1, 15, 1, 25, 1,...) which i thought answered the question as it doesn't tend to infinity.



I thought i had it, but i don't. As bn isn't in brackets it implies it is a constant from the sequence (bn), which i can choose. I don't know the sequence (bn) so it can basically be any number i presume? All i know is it's greater than 0. I can't think of a number for bn that satisfies this constraint.




Any and all help appreciated, I'm perplexed and out of ideas.

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