I came across this identity when working with energy partitions of Einstein solids. I have a combinatorial proof, but I'm wondering if there exists an algebraic proof.
N∑q=0(m+q−1q)(n+N−q−1N−q)=(m+n+N−1N)
I've tried induction, but Pascal's Identity cannot simultaneously reduce the top and bottom argument for an inductive proof.
For those interested, a combinatorial proof of the identity can be given as follows: Consider the ways of distributing N quanta of energy to a system of n+m oscillators (where each oscillator can have any number of quanta). This is equivalent to the question of asking how many ways of putting N objects into n+m boxes. From the traditional stars and bars method, the total is given by
(m+n+N−1N)
which is the right-hand side. Alternatively, consider partitioning the units of energy between the first m and the last n oscillators. Give q units of energy to the first m oscillators. Then there remains N−q units of energy for the latter n. Together, the number of states for this particular partition is
(m+q−1q)(n+N−q−1N−q)
Summing over all partitions gives the left-hand side.
Thanks for your time.
Answer
Let fn(z)=∞∑q=0(n+q−1q)zq
Claim: This is (1−z)−n.
Then fn(z)fm(z)=fn+m(z). But the left hand side of your formula is the coefficient of zN in fn(z)fm(z), and the right hand side is the coefficient of fn+m(z).
The proof of the claim is the generalized binomial expansion, and uses the fact that (−nq)=(−1)q(n+q−1q)
Alternatively, you can rewrite your statement as:
N∑q=0(−mq)(−nN−q)=(−(m+n)q)
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