Wednesday, 13 May 2015

analysis - Evaluating limntoinftyfrac1n(n!)frac1n

I'm trying to find and prove the value oflimn1n(n!)1n




I was thinking that since
1n(n!)1n=1n[(1)1n(2)1n...(n)1n]



and we know that
limnn1n=1


and
k1n n1n    kn



So (n!)1n1 n * Then it is bounded. We also know that lim1n=0, therefore
limn1n(n!)1n=0




I'm pretty sure this line of reasoning is ok. Now proving it is another thing. Any suggestions?



*I realize now that this statement is not true, but that did not get me any closer to solving the problem. I do believe that it is bounded though.



**LOL, I don't believe this to be true anymore either, a wild guess tells me that the solution may be 1e

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