Let f: R → R be a function such that f(x+y) = f(x)f(y) for all x,y ∈ R. Suppose that f′(0) exists. Prove that f is a differentiable function.
This is what I've tried:
Using the definition of differentiability and taking arbitrary x0 ∈ R.
lim {f(x_0 + h)-f(x_0)\over h} = \cdots = f(x_0)\lim_{h\to 0} {f(h) - 1\over h}.
Then since x_0 arbitrary, using f(x_0+0) = f(x_0) = f(x_0)f(0) for y = 0, can I finish the proof?
No comments:
Post a Comment