This is the full question:
show that if p is an odd prime then the number of ordered pair solutions of the congruencex^2-y^2 \equiv a \pmod p, is p-1 unless a \equiv 0 \pmod p, in which case number of solutions is 2p-1.
Considering x,y \,\in \mathbb{Z}. In the second case, since a \equiv 0 \pmod p, it follows that p\mid (x-y)(x+y), but then there will be infinitely many solutions of this congruence relation because there are no bounds mentioned in the question on x and y.
So is the question incomplete? or is it implicitly stated that $0\leq x,y .For this bound, do we get 2p-1 solutions?
Answer
ETA: For whatever reason I thought the question here was to prove that the statement in the OP's thread in the shaded yellow box, which is what I did below.
You already answered your own question for the case where a is zero so we now consider the case where a is nonzero i.e., a \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}.
Let a \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}. For every such nonzero b \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}, there is exactly one c \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times} satisfying a=bc.
The above equation factors to (x-y)(x+y) = a; x,y \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}. By the above, for each nonzero b=(x-y)\in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}, there is exactly one c=(x+y)\in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times} such that (x-y)(x+y)=a.
So for each nonzero b\in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times}, there is exactly one pair (x,y); x,y \in (\mathbb{F}_p)^{\times} such that both (x-y)=b and (x-y)(x+y)=a.
Can you finish from here.
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