Let k be an odd integer. As a part of an introductory class to proofs, I wanted to show that the number k2−1 is divisible by 8, and managed to do this by checking that it is congruent modulo 8. However a student came to me today asking if it was possible to prove the claim by using the greatest common divisor of the two numbers 8 and k2−1, but I couldn't answer them since I have very little experience in number theory and the question came right out of the bushes.
Is there a proof to this claim, that a high school student who is fairly fluent in math could grasp, and that uses the gcd to its advantage somehow? To clarify, the student tried using the fact that if a, b, c and d are numbers such that a = bc + d, then \gcd(a,b) = \gcd(b,d).
Answer
Well k= 2m+1 is odd so k^2 - 1= 4m^2 + 4m so \gcd(8,4m^2+4m) = 4\gcd(2,m^2+m)= 4\gcd(2, m(m+1)).
And \gcd(2,m(m+1)) is 2 if m(m+1) is even and 1 if m(m+1) is odd.
And either m is even and m(m+1) is even; or m is odd and m+1 is even and m(m+1) is even. SO m(m+1) is even.
So \gcd(8,k^2 -1)=\gcd(8,4m^2 +4m) = 4\gcd(2,m(m+1))=4*2 =8.
The only real trouble is there's nothing there that couldn't have been explained (and probably easierly) without gcd.
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