Friday 31 May 2019

fake proofs - Why is this wrong (complex numbers and proving 1=-1)?




$$(e^{2πi})^{1/2}=1^{1/2}$$$$(e^{πi})=1$$ $$-1=1$$ I think it is due to not taking the principle value but please can someone explain why this is wrong in detial, thanks.


Answer



You used two different branches of the function $x^{\frac{1}{2}}$.



Note that even in exponential form $(e^{x})^\frac{1}{2}$ has two different branches: $e^{\frac{x}{2}}$ and $e^{\frac{x}{2}+\frac{2 \pi i}{2}}$.


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