Is it possible to evaluate limx→0(1x−cotx) without L'Hopital's rule? The most straightforward way is to use sinx and cosx and apply the rule, but I stuck when I arrived to this part (since I don't want to use the rule as it is pretty much cheating):
limx→0(sinx−xcosxxsinx)
It seems like there's something to do with the identity
limx→0sinxx=1
but I can't seem to get the result of 0.
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