Given two numbers a and b, where a is co-prime to b,
- Show that for any number c, if a|c and b|c then ab|c.
- Is the reverse also true? In other words, if ab|c and a is co-prime to b, then do we have a|c as well as b|c?
Answer
The second property holds, but the assumption that gcd is superfluous. In general, if x|y and y|z, then x|z. Since a|ab and b|ab, then ab|c implies a|c and b|c, without any conditions on \gcd(a,b).
On the other hand, \gcd(a,b)=1 is required for the first.
There are a number of ways of doing the proof. One is to use the Bezout identity: for any integers a and b, there exist integers x and y such that \gcd(a,b)=ax+by. If \gcd(a,b)=1, then we can write 1 = ax+by. Multiplying through by c, we get c=axc + byc. Since a|c, we can write c=ak; and since b|c, we can write c=b\ell. So we have
c = axc+byc = ax(b\ell) + by(ak) = ab(x\ell + yk),
so ab|c.
Another is to use the following property:
Lemma. If a|xy and \gcd(a,x)=1, then a|y.
This can be done using the Bezout identity, but here is a proof that avoids it and only uses the properties of the gcd (so it is valid in a larger class of rings than Bezout rings):
\begin{align*} r|\gcd(a,xy) & \iff r|a,xy\\ &\iff r|ay, xy,a\\ &\iff r|\gcd(ay,xy),a\\ &\iff r|y\gcd(a,x),a\\ &\iff r|y,a\\ &\iff r|\gcd(a,y) \end{align*}
In particular, a=\gcd(a,xy) divides \gcd(a,y), which divides y, hence a|y.
With that Lemma on hand, we obtain that the result you want as follows: If a|c, then c=ak for some k. Then b|ak, \gcd(a,b)=1. so b|k. Hence k=b\ell; thus, c=ak=ab\ell, so ab|c.
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