Saturday, 15 December 2012

real analysis - How can I prove this sequence of functions converges pointwise but not uniformly to a function?



Let fk(x)=tan1(kx) and f(x)={π/2if0<x1,0ifx=0.



How can I prove that {fk} converges pointwise but not uniformly to f, wuthout using the fact that the uniform limit of a sequence of continuous functions is continuous?




I could use the theorem that says that the convergence is uniform if and only if limksupxI|fk(x)f(x)|=0, but I don't know how to apply it.



Any hint or ideas will be very appreciated. Thank you very much.


Answer



Hint: Fix k. What is



limx0+|fk(x)f(x)|?



Can you deduce from here that for all k we have




supxI|fk(x)f(x)|π4?



Can you see how this shows that that limit cannot be 0?


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