How can I prove that the function f(x)=cos(π/x) when 0<x≤1, and f(x)=0 when x=0 is integrable on [0,1]?
I know I can use that the funtion is continous in the interval and using the Riemann's criterion for integrability but I don't know exactly how to start it or if it makes sense.
Answer
Here's one thing you could do: fix ε>0, and partition the domain into [0,ε/4] and [ε/4,1]. On the latter interval, the function is continuous, and hence integrable.
Therefore, we may find a partition P of [ε/4,1] such that both the upper and lower sums, U(f,P) and L(f,P) respectively, on this partition are within ε/2 of each other.
Extend P to a new partition P′ on [0,1], by taking P and including [0,ε/4]. Note that the function is bounded by 1 and −1, and in fact, attains these extreme values infinitely often on [0,ε/4]. Therefore, the upper sum U(f,P′) will just be U(f,P)+ε/4. Similarly, L(f,P′)=L(f,P)−ε/4.
Hence, for any ε>0, we have constructed a partition P′ on [0,1] such that
U(f,P′)−L(f,P′)=U(f,P)−L(f,P)+ε/2<ε.
Thus, the function must be integrable.
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