I've got the following problem for Calc III. I need to prove that the surface area of a function f(x,y) over a region D is given in polar coordinates by the following double integral:
∬
Given g(r,\theta) = f(r \cos \theta,r \sin \theta) and Q = \{(r,\theta) \mid (r \cos \theta,r \sin \theta) \in D \}.
So, I'm not really used to these kinds of problems, but here's what I got so far. Starting from the surface area function over cartesian coordinates, to change the variable of double integrals first we calculate the Jacobian as such:
x=f(r,\theta)=r\cos\theta,y=g(r,\theta)=r\sin\theta
\frac{\partial f}{\partial r} = \cos\theta, \frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta} = -r\sin\theta, \frac{\partial g}{\partial r} = \sin \theta, \frac{\partial g}{\partial \theta} = -r \cos \theta
J = \left\lvert (\cos\theta)(-r \cos \theta) - (-r\sin\theta)(\sin \theta) \right\rvert = r
Not too much trouble there. But when I proceed to actually change the variables on the double integral, I don't know how to deal with partial derivatives of f. If I were to substitute using something like x=r\cos \theta and y=r\sin \theta, I'd do something like this...
\iint_D \sqrt{ \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\right)^2 + 1} \,dA
\iint_Q \sqrt{ \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}(r\cos \theta, r\sin \theta)\right)^2 + \left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}(r\cos \theta, r\sin \theta)\right)^2 + 1} \,r\,dr\,d\theta
Does that even make any sense? How would you proceed to do something like this? Thanks in advance.
Answer
Hint: Expand \frac{\partial g}{\partial r} and \frac{\partial g}{\partial\theta} using the chain rule: \frac{\partial g}{\partial r} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial r}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial r}+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial r}=f_x\cos\theta + f_y\sin\theta \\ \frac{\partial g}{\partial\theta} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial\theta}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial\theta}+\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial\theta}=f_y\;r\cos\theta-f_x\;r\sin\theta. Now, square these two expressions and look for a way to combine them that eliminates the coefficients of the partial derivatives of f.
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