This might be a long-winded way of proving something so obvious, but I want to have it checked if it holds up.
Claim: There does not exist a sequence {an∈N} of natural numbers such that an+1<an for every n.
Proof: This amounts to showing that the set M={m∈N:m≤a0}, where a0 is the first member from any sequence in infinite descent, is finite. Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there exists an a0 such that the set M is infinite. We suppose further that a0 is minimal. Clearly a0≠0, for if it were, the set M={m∈N:m≤0} = {0} is finite.
Consider the set N=M−{n∈N:a1<n≤a0}, which is just the set M with the finitely many naturals deleted. From elementrary set theory, N must be infinite.
But N={n∈N:n≤a1}, and we can suppose that a1 is the first term in a natural number sequence in infinite descent. Thus we have found another infinite set with the desired property, but with a1<a0. This contradicts the minimality of a0.
Answer
This amounts to showing that the set M={m∈N:m≤a0}, where a0 is the first member from any sequence in infinite descent, is finite.
\def\nn{\mathbb{N}}
This first line of your 'proof' is invalid. You are using merely your intuition to claim that the non-existence of an infinite descending chain of natural numbers follows from the finiteness of some set that you specified. This is circular in this case; proving the equivalence amounts to proving something of roughly the same strength as the original desired theorem.
Instead what you actually need is:
Let S = \{ n : n \in \nn \land \text{there is a strictly decreasing sequence from $\nn$ starting with $n$ } \}.
If S is non-empty then let m = \min(S) and (use your other ideas) to prove that there is a strictly decreasing sequence from \nn starting with something less than m, which contradicts the definition of m.
Therefore S is empty and you are done.
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