The problem:
Show that if ∑∞1an converges and an≥0 for all n≥1, then ∑∞1ann
also converges. Is the statement
true without the hypothesis an≥0 ?
My attempt:
1) 1≥1n, because an≥0 we have an≥ann
=>if ∑∞1an converge then ∑∞1ann
also converges.
2) if ∑∞1an converge then partial sums sn is a bounded sequence, and 1n is decreasing and 1n→0 from Dirichlet test we have ∑∞1ann converges.
But I'm not sure if this is correct I feel something is wrong.
Answer
It is correct. I would have used Abel's test to justify the convergence of ∑∞n=1ann without the assumption that (∀n∈N):an⩾. It allows you to deduce that, say, \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{na_n}{n+1} also converges.
No comments:
Post a Comment