Wednesday, 13 May 2015

Induction proof concerning Pell numbers



Problem: The Pell numbers pn are defined by the recurrence relation pn+1=2pn+pn1 for n1, together with p0=0 and p1=1.




Prove with mathematical induction that pn+1pn1p2n=(1)n for every nN{0}.



Proof: Initial step: for n=1 we have p2p0p21=(1) which is true given the initial conditions.



Inductive step: Suppose the above expression is true for n>1. Then we have to show that it is also true for n+1. So we have pn+1pn1p2n=(1)n. I now plugged in the expression for pn+1 given above, and thus got: (2pn+pn1)pn1p2n=(1)n, or 2pnpn1+p2n1p2n=(1)n.



I'm not sure if I'm doing this right, and I don't know how to proceed. Any help would be appreciated.


Answer



Look at what you want to show: you want to show that pn+2pnp2n+1=(1)n+1. You know that pn+2=2pn+1+pn, so this is equivalent to




(1)n+1=(2pn+1+pn)pnp2n+1=p2n+2pnpn+1p2n+1.



Your induction hypothesis is that pn+1pn1p2n=(1)n; that has a pn1 that isn’t present in (1), so perhaps we should manipulate the target (1) a bit more to get a pn1. We might apply pn+1=2pn+pn1 to one of the factors of pn+1 in p2n+1 to get



p2n+2pn+1p2n+1=p2n+2pn+1pn+1(2pn+pn1)=p2n+2pnpn+12pnpn+1pn1pn+1=p2npn1pn+1.




Can you finish it from there?


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