Prove by induction (weak or strong) that:
n−1∑k=0(k+1)2=n(n+1)(2n+1)6
My base case is:
n=1, which is true.
In my Inductive Step, I assume that: S(n)=n(n+1)(2n+1)6 holds for an arbitrary value of n.
Proving it then holds for n+1:
S(n+1)=(n+1)((n+1)+1)(2(n+1)+1)6
S(n+1)=(n+1)((n+2)(2n+2+1)6
S(n+1)=(n+1)((n+2)(2n+3)6
S(n+1)=2n3+9n2+13n+66
but can't see how my definition of S(n) can be substituted into this final equation?
[EDIT] This isn’t a duplicate because the original summation of (k+1)2 is what I’m originally provided with. The apparent duplicate question also doesn’t have a correct proof by induction answer associated with it.
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