I have managed to construct the following bound for $e$, which is defined as the unique positive number such that $\int_1^e \frac{dx}x = 1$.
$$\left ( 1+\frac{1}{n} \right )^n \leq e \leq \left (\frac{n}{n-1} \right )^n$$
From here, there must surely be a way to deduce the well-known equality
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+ \frac{1}{n} \right )^n = e$$
I have come up with the following, but I am not absolutely certain if this is correct or not.
PROPOSED SOLUTION:
The lower bound is fine as it is, so we shall leave it alone. Note that
$$\begin{align*}
\left ( \frac{n}{n-1} \right )^n &= \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right )^{n} \\ &=
\left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right )^{n-1} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right )
\end{align*}$$
So using the fact that the limit distributes over multiplication, we have
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( \frac{n}{n-1} \right )^n = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right )^{n-1} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right ) $$
Since $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right ) = 1 $$
and
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{n-1} \right )^{n-1} = \lim_{m \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+\frac{1}{m} \right )^m = e $$
We then have the required result
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \left ( 1+ \frac{1}{n} \right )^n = e$$
Answer
The proof as stated is circular, but it's easily fixed, more or less by just rephrasing things.
Problem: When you say "Since ... $\lim\left(1+\frac1m\right)^m=e$... we have the required result" you certainly appear to be assuming what you're trying to prove.
Fix: The original inequality shows that $$e\ge\limsup\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n.$$Your manipulations with the original upper bound show that $$e\le\liminf\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n,$$and these two inequalities show that the limit in question exists and equals $e$.
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