I am given two distinct primes p and q, where m=p∗q Also,
\begin{cases} r\equiv 1\mod p-1\\ r\equiv 1\mod q-1 \end{cases}
I have to show that given an integer a, show that a^r \equiv a \mod (m)
I'm not sure how to get started. I know I can tie this in to Fermat's Little Theorem and I've found something here CRT + Fermat's Little Theorem that was somewhat related to my question but I had a hard time seeing where to go. Just need a little hint to get me in the right direction! Thanks.
Answer
Hint #1. It's enough to show that a^r\equiv a\pmod p and a^r\equiv a\pmod q; since p and q are relatively prime, it will follow from that that a^r\equiv a\pmod{pq}. By symmetry, it's enough to show that a^r\equiv a\pmod p.
Hint #2. What does \ r\equiv1\pmod{p-1}\ \ mean? It means that r-1 is divisible by p-1; in other words, that \ r=1+(p-1)m\ \ for some integer m.
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