Question:
Let f:(X,d)→(Y,e) be a map between metric spaces.
Let U⊂X and let V⊆Y.
Show that if V′⊆V then f−1(V′)⊆f−1(V).
By the definition of pre-image:
f−1(V′)={y∈Y∣f(y)∈V′}.
Useful hints are appreciated.
Thanks in advance.
Answer
We will show that any element x∈f−1(V′) is also an element of f−1(V).
Let x∈f−1(V′) then, by definition of preimage, there is y∈V′ such that f(x)=y.
Now V′⊆V implies that y∈V and therefore x∈f−1(V).
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