I found an integral calculated from what I understand with “differentation under the integration sign” method.
∫∞−∞exp(−b2(x−c)2)erf(a(x−d))dx=√πberf(ab(c−d)√a2+b2)
for b>0.
The author of the original post explains how he obtained the solution:
“got it by differentiating the integrand w.r.t. a, then integrated over x=-inf..inf, then substituted a=sqrt(b*z)/sqrt(1-z) and integrated over z and then - most important - checked the result numerically.”
So I tried to follow that procedure and I get:
I(a)=∫∞−∞exp(−b2(x−c)2)erf(a(x−d))dx
dI(a)da=dda∫∞−∞exp(−b2(x−c)2)erf(a(x−d))dx
dI(a)da=∫∞−∞∂∂aexp(−b2(x−c)2)erf(a(x−d))dx
dI(a)da=∫∞−∞2exp(−b2(−c+x)2−a2(−d+x)2)(−d+x)√πdx
dI(a)da=2b2(c−d)(a2+b2)3/2exp(−a2b2(c−d)2a2+b2)
Now I substitute z=a2a2+b2 and after some manipulations I get the right side of the last equation:
2√b(c−d)(1−z)3/2exp(−zb2(c−d)2)
I’m not sure what my next step should be so I would appreciate any suggestions.
Answer
Let's try a close variant : differentiate relatively to d instead of a at the start (to avoid the additional factor (x−d) in the integral and complications in the final integration) :
I(d)=∫∞−∞e−b2(x−c)2 erf(a(x−d))dx
dI(d)dd=−2a√π∫∞−∞e−b2(x−c)2−a2(x−d)2dx
dI(d)dd=−2a√π∫∞−∞e−b2(x−c)2−a2(x−d)2dx
dI(d)dd=−2a√π∫∞−∞e−(a2+b2)(x−b2c+a2da2+b2)2+(b2c+a2d)2a2+b2−(b2c2+a2d2)dx
dI(d)dd=−2a√πe(b2c+a2d)2a2+b2−(b2c2+a2d2)∫∞−∞e−(a2+b2)y2dy
dI(d)dd=−2a√πe−a2b2(c−d)2a2+b2√π√a2+b2=−2ae−a2b2(c−d)2a2+b2√a2+b2
At this point we have to integrate again relatively to d to get (up to a function C independent of d) :
I(d)=√πberf(ab(c−d)√a2+b2)+C(a,b,c)
(Alpha integration check : note that the denominator is b and not √b nor my earlier ab as I checked numerically!)
After that you'll just have to prove that C(a,b,c)≡0
Note that the integration relatively to d seems more straightforward than relatively to a in your case (I'm not saying it can't be done your way!).
Hoping it clarified things a little even if it didn't answer your question,
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